Freud, you sexist...

I apologize in advance for the feminist rant, but it seems obvious that Freud's entire conception of how femininity emerges as a construct, is hinged entirely on a notion that the male sex is inherently superior and dominant to the female sex. Throughout his essay, he consistently views women only in the context of how they are similar or dissimilar to men. It seems that femininity cannot stand on its own a construct, but exists only as a reaction to masculinity. For example, Freud claims that in the phallic stage, "the little girl is a little man." What? Why is her behavior at this stage considered "masculine"? If this is normal behavior for a girl at this stage, why is this behavior seen as masculine, and not merely a normal stage of development for both males and females? Why is this behavior inherently masculine if it is seen in both sexes? Freud's question of "how does she pass from her masculine phase to the feminine one to which she is biologically destined?" is ridiculous. If this phase is inherent in both sexes, why does she have to pass through it to become feminine? Why is this stage not also inherently feminine?
Freud's theory that a female's entire developmental process is due to her lack of a penis is also ridiculous. Why would a little girl see a penis as being inherently better than what she has? Without any social experience, how would she know that males and the penis are inherently superior? Freud seems to imply that the possesion of a penis does render the male sex inherently superior. The penis is clearly biologically enviable, as evidenced by the fact that a little girl can be made to feel inferior just by realizing that she does not have a penis. She feels castrated because she lacks this organ. Freud thereby consistently insinuates that women are essentially biologically disenfranchised, and inherently inferior.